Question Of The Day #66

question of the day
40.1 - Pneumothorax 1

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this patient’s condition?

This man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath after a penetrating chest injury. He has tachypnea and low oxygen saturation on exam, but he is not hypotensive or tachycardic.  The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey.  The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma.  This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma).  Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition.  The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.  After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history. 

This patient should immediately be given supplemental oxygen for his low oxygen saturation.  The history of penetrating chest trauma and hypoxemia also should raise concern for a traumatic pneumothorax, and oxygen supplementation is part of the treatment for all pneumothoraces.  The patient’s chest X-ray shows a large left sided pneumothorax indicated by the absence of left sided lung markings.  There is some left to right deviation of the heart and the primary bronchi.  There is no large left sided pleural effusion in the costodiaphragmatic recess to indicate a pneumo-hemothorax.  There is also no deviation of the trachea, hypotension, or tachycardia to indicate a tension pneumothorax (Choice B).  The patient is hemodynamically stable, so he cannot be in hemorrhagic shock (Choice A) or have cardiac tamponade (Choice C).  Although the pneumothorax is large with mild deviation of the heart, the lack of hemodynamic instability supports the diagnosis of a traumatic non-tension pneumothorax (Choice D).  The treatment for this would include 100% oxygen supplementation and placement of a chest tube.  A CT scan of the chest is more sensitive imaging test than a chest X-ray and should be considered to evaluate for additional injuries (blood vessel injuries, rib fractures, etc.). Correct Answer: D

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #66," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, December 3, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/12/03/question-of-the-day-66/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #65

question of the day
Longitudinal Orientation

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient’s condition?

This patient arrives in the Emergency Department after an assault with penetrating abdominal trauma and is hemodynamically stable on exam.  The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey.  The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma.  This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma).  Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition.  The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.  After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history. 

The FAST exam is a quick sonographic exam that requires the practitioner to look at 4 anatomical areas for signs of internal injuries.  The 4 areas are the right upper abdominal quadrant, left upper abdominal quadrant, pelvis, and subxiphoid (cardiac) areas.  The addition of views for each lung (1 view for each lung) is known as an E-FAST, or extended FAST exam.  The presence of an anechoic (black) stripe on ultrasound indicates the presence of free fluid.  In the setting of trauma, free fluid is assumed to be blood.  The presence of free fluid on a FAST exam is considered a “positive FAST exam”.   This patient has no free fluid between the right kidney and liver.  There also is no free fluid above the diaphragm to indicate a hemothorax. The question stem notes that all other FAST exam views are nonremarkable.  Therefore, this patient has a negative FAST exam.  See labelling of the FAST exam image below.

An exploratory laparotomy (Choice A) would be indicated in a patient with penetrating or blunt trauma, a positive FAST exam, and hemodynamic instability. This patient has a negative FAST exam and is hemodynamically stable.  Packed red blood cell infusion (Choice B) would be indicated in the setting of hemodynamic instability and trauma, as this is assumed to be hemorrhagic shock.  This patient is not tachycardic or hypotensive. A urinalysis to check for hematuria (Choice D) may be a helpful adjunctive investigation to evaluate for renal or bladder injury, but it is not the most crucial next step in management. Performing a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis (Choice C) is the best next step as the patient is hemodynamically stable with a negative FAST exam and a penetrating abdominal injury.  The CT scan will help further evaluate for any internal injuries that may require operative repair.  See the algorithm below for further detail on an abdominal trauma work flow. Correct Answer: C

undifferentiated trauma patient
undifferentiated trauma patient

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #65," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, November 26, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/11/26/question-of-the-day-65/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #64

question of the day
Left Upper Quadrant

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

This patient arrives in the Emergency Department after an assault and has pallor (paleness), hypotension, and tachycardia on exam.  The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey.  The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma.  This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma).  Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition.  The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.  After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history. 

The FAST exam is a quick sonographic exam that requires the practitioner to look at 4 anatomical areas for signs of internal injuries.  The 4 areas are the right upper abdominal quadrant, left upper abdominal quadrant, pelvis, and subxiphoid (cardiac) areas.  The addition of views for each lung (1 view for each lung) is known as an E-FAST, or extended FAST exam.  The presence of an anechoic (black) stripe on ultrasound indicates the presence of free fluid.  In the setting of trauma, free fluid is assumed to be blood.  The presence of free fluid on a FAST exam is considered a “positive FAST exam”.   This patient has free fluid between the left kidney and spleen in combination with hypotension and tachycardia.  This patient is in hemorrhagic shock until proven otherwise and needs prompt operative management.  See labelling of the FAST exam image below.

us image showing bleeding
us image showing bleeding

 

A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis (Choice A) and a CT scan of the head (Choice C) may be helpful in the evaluation of this patient, but this patient is hemodynamically unstable.  Radiographic tests that require the patient to leave the Emergency Department should be avoided if the patient is unstable.  The specific location or cause of the hemodynamic instability can be diagnosed in the operating theater where there are opportunities to control the intraperitoneal bleeding (i.e., splenectomy, vessel ligation or cautery, etc.).  Bedside diagnostic peritoneal lavage (Choice D) is not indicated in penetrating abdominal trauma when there is a negative FAST exam and CT scanning is available.  This patient sustained blunt abdominal trauma, so a DPL is less informative.  The best next step for this patient is exploratory laparotomy (Choice B) in the operating theater.  Hemodynamically unstable patients with a positive FAST exam should always go to the operating theater for further diagnosis and treatment.  See the algorithm below for further detail.

 

undifferentiated trauma patient
undifferentiated trauma patient

 

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #64," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, November 19, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/11/19/question-of-the-day-64/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #63

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient’s condition?

This patient presents to the Emergency Department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident in the setting of alcohol intoxication.  On examination, he is intoxicated with a GCS of 14 (normal GCS is 15).  The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey.  The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma.  This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma).  Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition.  The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.

After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history.  This patient is intoxicated but is awake with a patent airway. Endotracheal intubation (Choice C) is not indicated.  Neurosurgical consultation (Choice D) is also not indicated at this stage as there is no concrete information to indicate a surgical emergency.  CT imaging may demonstrate a cervical spine fracture or intracerebral bleeding, but these results are not provided by the question stem.  A CT scan of the head without contrast (Choice B) is a reasonable test for this patient given his significant mechanism of injury and intoxication on exam.  However, both a CT scan of the head and cervical spine (Choice A) should be ordered due to the patient’s intoxication creating an unreliable physical exam.  Alcohol intoxication or drug use can alter a patient’s ability to sense pain and provide accurate information.  The presence of intoxication should always raise awareness for possible occult injuries. 

Of note, intoxication and altered mental status are indications to perform a CT scan of the cervical spine based on a well-validated decision-making tool known as the NEXUS criteria (National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study).  Other criteria on the NEXUS tool that support CT cervical spine imaging are midline spinal tenderness, the presence of a focal neurologic deficit, or the presence of a distracting injury (i.e., femur fracture). The Canadian C-Spine Rule and Canadian CT Head Rule are other validated decision-making tools to help a clinician decide on whether or not to order CT head or cervical spine imaging. Correct Answer: A

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #63," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, November 12, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/11/12/question-of-the-day-63/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #62

627.15 - Figure 15 - lentiform epidural hematoma in the right hemisphere

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s condition?

This patient presents to the Emergency Department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident.  On examination, he is tachycardic, mildly tachypneic, and has an altered mental status (somnolent).  The first step in evaluating this trauma patient involves the primary survey.  The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma.  This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma).  Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition.  The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.

After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history.  A noncontrast CT scan of the head is a reasonable test for this patient given his significant mechanism of injury and altered mental status on exam.  The CT scan shows a hyperdense (white) biconvex area on the right side of the brain.  This white area indicates the presence of fresh blood on the CT scan.  Keep in mind that CT scans are read as if you are looking up from the patient’s feet to their head.  This means left-right directionality is reversed.  See image below.

A hyperdense area with a sickled or crescent-shaped appearance would indicate an acute subdural hemorrhage (Choice A).  This is caused by tearing of the cerebral bridging veins.  Hyperdense areas throughout the brain tissue itself would indicate an intraparenchymal hemorrhage (Choice B).  Hyperdense areas around the sulci of the brain and a starfish appearance would indicate a subarachnoid hemorrhage (Choice D). Subarachnoid bleeding is caused by rupturing of a brain aneurysm or an arteriovenous (AV) malformation.  Subarachnoid bleeding can also be associated with trauma. 

This patient’s CT image shows an epidural hemorrhage (Choice C), indicated by the biconvex lens shaped area of blood.  This is caused by tearing of the middle meningeal artery.  Treatment of all types of intracranial bleeding involves general supportive care, airway management (i.e., endotracheal intubation for GCS < 8), elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees to lower intracranial pressure (ICP), managing pain and sedation (lowers ICP), blood pressure maintenance (goal SBP <140mmHg), reversal of coagulopathy, neurosurgical evaluation for possible operative intervention, and providing ICP lowering treatments (mannitol or hypertonic 3% NaCl) when concerned about elevated ICP or brain herniation.

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #62," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, November 5, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/11/05/question-of-the-day-62/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #61

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient’s condition?

This patient arrives to the hospital after penetrating trauma to the right chest.  His initial examination reveals hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, and a low oxygen saturation.

All medical and trauma patients that arrive to the Emergency Department, especially those who are ill-appearing or with abnormal vital signs, should undergo the “ABCs”.  This is also known as the primary survey.  The primary survey aims to create a step-wise initial approach to patients where all life-threatening conditions are identified and treated early in the encounter with the patient.  The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.  In trauma patients, the primary survey is extended to include the “ABCDEFs”.  This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam.  Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition. 

Airway assessment involves checking for airway patency (clear voice, stridor, blood or vomitus in mouth, etc.) and applying cervical spine immobilization if needed.  Endotracheal intubation or a surgical airway may need to be placed during this step.  Breathing assessment involves auscultation of the lungs, checking the oxygen saturation, and providing supplemental oxygen to the patient if needed.  Abnormalities in the breathing exam (absent unilateral lung sounds, tracheal deviation, etc.) may prompt the placement of a chest tube or needle decompression.  It is during the breathing step that a pneumothorax, tension pneumothorax, or hemothorax is identified and treated.  Circulation assessment involves checking the heart rate and blood pressure, palpating all peripheral pulses, establishing IV access, and administering IV fluids or blood products.  It is during the circulation step that hemorrhage and shock is identified and controlled (pressure dressing applied to bleeding extremity wound, tourniquet applied to slow bleeding at amputated limb, etc.).  Disability assessment involves checking the patient’s neurologic status.  This involves calculating a GCS (Glasgow Coma Score), measuring the patient’s glucose level, and performing a focused neurologic exam.  Exposure involves removing all the patient’s clothes which may be obstructing view of other injuries.  This step involves rolling the patient to the lateral decubitus position to check the back and perineal areas for trauma.  The last step of the primary survey in trauma is the FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma).  The FAST exam is a quick sonographic exam that requires the practitioner to look at 4 anatomical areas for signs of internal injuries.  The 4 areas are the right upper abdominal quadrant, left upper abdominal quadrant, pelvis, and subxiphoid (cardiac) areas. 

The question stem provides information regarding the airway of the patient, which is stated to be patent.  The next step in the “ABCDEFs” should be evaluation of the ‘Breathing’.  Administration of packed red blood cells (Choice A) is considered part of the “Circulation” assessment.  Removing the patient’s clothes to evaluate for occult injuries (Choice C) is important, but the “Breathing” assessment should be performed prior to the patient’s “Exposure” step.  Performing a FAST exam (Choice D) is also an important part of the primary survey, but it should be performed after the “Breathing” step is completed.  Auscultation of both lungs (Choice B) is the best next step, as this is part of the “Breathing” step after the “Airway” assessment.  During this step, the patient should be given supplemental oxygen and evaluated for abnormal or absent unilateral lung sounds.  This is important as this patient is at risk for a large pneumothorax, tension pneumothorax, or hemothorax after his penetrating trauma.   

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #61," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, October 29, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/10/29/question-of-the-day-61/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #60

question of the day
Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient’s condition? 

This first-trimester pregnant patient presents with generalized weakness, nausea, and vomiting.  She is hypotensive and tachycardic with no sign of urinary infection on the urinalysis.  The many ketones in the urine indicate the patient has inadequate oral nutrition and is breaking down muscle and adipose tissue for energy.  This is likely related to the persistent vomiting the patient is experiencing.  This patient has hyperemesis, a common condition in the first trimester of pregnancy that is caused by rising levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (BHCG).  Treatment for this patient should include IV hydration and antiemetics.  Admission criteria for these patients includes intractable vomiting despite antiemetic administration, over 10% maternal weight loss, persistent ketone or electrolyte abnormalities despite rehydration, or uncertainty in the diagnosis. 

The fluid losses caused by vomiting in this condition result in hypovolemic shock (Choice B).  Distributive shock (Choice C) is caused by other conditions, like sepsis, anaphylaxis, and neurogenic shock.  A ureteral stone (Choice D) is unlikely as the patient does not report any abdominal, back, or flank pain.  The urinalysis also does not show any hematuria, which is a common sign of a ureteral stone.  Pyelonephritis (Choice A) can cause vomiting and septic shock which can result in hypotension and tachycardia.  However, there is no sign of infection in the urinalysis provided, no fever, and no back or flank pain.  The best answer is choice B.  

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #60," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, October 22, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/10/22/question-of-the-day-60/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #59

question of the day
38 - atrial fibrillation

Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient’s respiratory condition?

This patient presents to the Emergency Department with palpitations, generalized weakness, and shortness of breath after discontinuing all her home medications.  She has hypotension, marked tachycardia, and pulmonary edema (crackles on lung auscultation).  The 12-lead EKG demonstrates atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate.  This patient is in a state of cardiogenic shock and requires prompt oxygen support, blood pressure support, and heart rate control. 

Pulmonary embolism (Choice A) can sometimes manifest as new atrial fibrillation with shortness of breath and tachycardia, but pulmonary embolism initially causes obstructive shock.  If a pulmonary embolism goes untreated, it can progress to right ventricular failure, pulmonary edema, and cardiogenic shock.  This patient has known atrial fibrillation and stopped all her home medications.  The abrupt medication change is a more likely cause of the patient’s cardiogenic shock.  Dehydration (Choice D) and systemic infection (Choice D) are less likely given the above history of abruptly stopping home maintenance medications.  Untreated cardiac arrythmia (Choice B) is the most likely cause for this patient’s pulmonary edema and cardiogenic shock. 

The chart below details the categories of shock, each category’s hemodynamics, potential causes, and treatments.  

 

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #59," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, October 15, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/10/15/question-of-the-day-59/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #58

question of the day
720 - variceal bleeding

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?   

This cirrhotic patient presents to the Emergency Department with epigastric pain after an episode of hematemesis at home.  His initial vital signs are within normal limits.  While waiting in the Emergency Department, his clinical status changes.  The patient has a large volume of hematemesis with hypotension and tachycardia.  This patient is now in hemorrhagic shock from an upper gastrointestinal bleed and requires immediate volume resuscitation.  The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is peptic ulcer disease, but this patient’s cirrhosis history and large volume of hematemesis should raise concern for an esophageal variceal bleed.  IV Pantoprazole (Choice D) is a proton pump inhibitor that helps reduce bleeding in peptic ulcers, but it does not provide benefit in esophageal varices.  Volume repletion is also a more important initial step than giving pantoprazole.  IV Ceftriaxone (Choice C) helps reduce the likelihood of infectious complications in variceal bleed patients.  This has a mortality benefit and is a recommended adjunctive treatment.  However, rapid volume resuscitation is a more important initial step.  IV crystalloid fluids, like normal saline (Choice A), are helpful in patients with hypovolemic shock (i.e., dehydration, vomiting), distributive shock (i.e., sepsis, anaphylaxis), and obstructive shock (i.e., tension pneumothorax, etc.).  Hypovolemic shock due to severe hemorrhage (hemorrhagic shock) requires blood products, not crystalloid fluids which can further dilute blood and cause coagulopathy.  Administration of packed red blood cells (Choice B) is the best next step in management in this case.

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #58," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, October 8, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/10/08/question-of-the-day-58/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #57

question of the day

Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient’s condition?  

This young female presents with dizziness, fatigue, nausea, generalized abdominal pain, hypotension, tachycardia, and a positive urine pregnancy test.  The anechoic (black) areas on the bedside ultrasound indicate free fluid (blood) in the peritoneal space.  See the image below for clarification. Yellow arrows indicates free fluids.

This patient is in a state of physiologic shock.  Shock is an emergency medical state characterized by cardiovascular or circulatory failure.  Shock prevents peripheral tissues from receiving adequate perfusion, resulting in organ dysfunction and failure.  Shock can be categorized as hypovolemic, distributive, obstructive, or cardiogenic.  The different categories of shock are defined by their underlying cause (i.e., sepsis, hemorrhage, pulmonary embolism, etc.) and their hemodynamics which sometimes overlap.  The diagnosis of shock is largely clinical and supported by the history, vital signs, and physical exam.  Additional studies, such as laboratory investigations, bedside ultrasound, and imaging tests help narrow down the type of shock, potential triggers, and guide management. 

This patient’s condition is caused by a presumed ruptured ectopic pregnancy and intraperitoneal bleeding.  This is considered hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock (Choice A). The other types of shock in Choices B, C, and D are less likely given the clinical and diagnostic information in the case.  The chart below details the categories of shock, each category’s hemodynamics, potential causes, and treatments.  

 

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #57," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, October 1, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/10/01/question-of-the-day-57/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #56

question of the day

Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?

This trauma patient arrives with hypotension, tachycardia, absent unilateral lung sounds, and distended neck veins. This should raise high concern for tension pneumothorax, which is a type of obstructive shock (Choice C). This diagnosis should be made clinically without X-ray imaging. Bedside ultrasound can assist in making the diagnosis by looking for bilateral lung sliding, if available. Treatment of tension pneumothorax should be prompt and includes needle decompression followed by tube thoracostomy. Other types of shock outlined in Choices A, B, and D do not fit the clinical scenario with information that is given.

Recall that shock is an emergency medical state characterized by cardiovascular or circulatory failure. Shock prevents peripheral tissues from receiving adequate perfusion, resulting in organ dysfunction and failure. Shock can be categorized as hypovolemic, distributive, obstructive, or cardiogenic. The different categories of shock are defined by their underlying cause (i.e., sepsis, hemorrhage, pulmonary embolism, etc.) and their hemodynamics which sometimes overlap. The diagnosis of shock is largely clinical and supported by the history, vital signs, and physical exam. Additional studies, such as laboratory investigations, bedside ultrasound, and imaging tests help narrow down the type of shock, potential triggers, and guide management. The chart below details the categories of shock, each category’s hemodynamics, potential causes, and treatments.

 

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #56," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, September 24, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/09/24/question-of-the-day-56/, date accessed: December 4, 2021

Question Of The Day #55

question of the day
738.2 - STEMI
Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient’s condition?  

This patient presents with chest pressure at rest and an anterior ST segment elevation myocardial infraction (STEMI) seen on 12-lead EKG.  This patient should be given aspirin, IV fluids to increase the preload status, and receive immediate coronary reperfusion therapy.  This patient’s hypotension is likely due to infarction of the left ventricle causing poor cardiac output (Choice D).  This is known as cardiogenic shock.  The patient has been vomiting, but the acute onset of symptoms and STEMI on EKG make poor cardiac output (Choice D) more likely than hypovolemia (Choice A) as the cause for the patient’s condition.  Systemic infection (Choice B) and pulmonary embolism (Choice C) are also less likely given the clinical information in the case and the STEMI on EKG.  The best answer is Choice D.  Please see the chart below for further detailing of the different types of shock.   

References

Cite this article as: Joseph Ciano, USA, "Question Of The Day #55," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, September 17, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/09/17/question-of-the-day-55/, date accessed: December 4, 2021