The neck is a compact anatomical area with many vital structures, including blood vessels that provide oxygen to the brain, the aerodigestive tracts (trachea and esophagus), nerves, and the apices of the lungs. A penetrating injury to the neck can be catastrophic and requires prompt examination and appropriate management. The neck is divided into 3 anatomical zones, and each zone houses different anatomical structures. Zone 1 is from the clavicle to the cricoid cartilage, Zone 2 is from the cricoid cartilage to the mandible, and Zone 3 is from the angle of the mandible to the base of the skull. See the reference below for pictures and further descriptions of each zone.
The presence of any “hard signs” of aerodigestive or neurovascular injury should prompt emergent operative management. These “hard signs” include airway compromise, expanding or pulsatile hematoma, active and brisk bleeding, hemorrhagic shock, neurological deficit, massive subcutaneous emphysema, and air bubbling through the wound. If the patient is hemodynamically stable and does not have any of these dangerous “hard signs”, it is reasonable to pursue CT angiography of the neck (Choice A) to evaluate for any vascular, aerodigestive, or neurologic injuries. The fish should not be removed (Choice B) in the Emergency department as this may result in uncontrolled bleeding. A more controlled environment, like an operating theater, is a more appropriate setting to remove a penetrating foreign body. The patient in this case has 2 hard signs (bubbling through wound and airway compromise), so he will need operative management (Choice C). However, the patient’s airway compromise is a more emergent and time-sensitive issue that needs to be addressed first with endotracheal intubation (Choice D). Intubation is the next best step in management. Correct Answer: D
This elderly man presents to the Emergency Department after a mechanical fall down the stairs with left flank pain. He is on anticoagulation. His chest X-ray shows 3 lower rib fractures. The diagnosis of rib fractures is clinical in conjunction with imaging. A history of rib trauma with pleuritic chest pain, tenderness over the ribs, and skin ecchymoses over the chest all support a diagnosis of rib fracture. Chest X-ray is often performed as an initial test, but it should be noted that about 50% of rib fractures are not able to be visualized on chest radiography alone. Bedside ultrasonography and CT scanning are more sensitive in detecting rib fractures than plain radiography. Treatment for rib fractures is mainly supportive and includes pain management and incentive spirometry (or regular deep inspiratory breaths) to prevent the development of atelectasis or pneumonia as complications. Many patients with rib fractures can be discharged home with these supportive measures.
Another important part of rib fracture management is evaluation for the complications or sequalae of rib fractures. This includes pulmonary contusion, pneumonia, atelectasis, flail chest, traumatic pneumothorax or tension pneumothorax, hemothorax, and abdominal viscus injuries. Elderly patients with multiple rib fractures are more likely to have poor outcomes and should be admitted for close observation. Admission to the hospital for pain management (Choice A) may be needed in this case, but it is not the best next step. Placement of a chest tube (Choice C) is not needed in this case as there are no signs of a pneumothorax. Incentive spirometry (Choice D) is important to prevent atelectasis or pneumonia, but it is not the best next step. The presence of multiple lower rib fractures (ribs #9-12) as seen in this case should prompt evaluation for abdominal injuries, such as hepatic or splenic lacerations. Potential abdominal injuries should be of greater concern since this patient is on anticoagulation for his atrial fibrillation. The best next step is a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis (Choice B).
This patient arrives in the Emergency Department after sustaining penetrating chest trauma and is found to be hypotensive, tachycardic, and with a low oxygen saturation on room air. The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey. The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma. This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma). Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition. The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history. After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history.
The FAST exam is a quick sonographic exam that requires the practitioner to look at 4 anatomical areas for signs of internal injuries. The 4 areas are the right upper abdominal quadrant, left upper abdominal quadrant, pelvis, and subxiphoid (cardiac) areas. The addition of views for each lung (1 view for each lung) is known as an E-FAST, or extended FAST exam. The presence of an anechoic (black) stripe on ultrasound indicates the presence of free fluid. In the setting of trauma, free fluid is assumed to be blood. The presence of free fluid on a FAST exam is considered a “positive FAST exam”. This patient’s ultrasound shows fluid in the pericardiac sac which in combination with the patient’s hypotension and tachycardia, this supports a diagnosis of cardiac tamponade. See the image below for labelling.
Cardiac tamponade is considered a type of obstructive shock. As with other types of obstructive shock, such as pulmonary embolism and tension pneumothorax, there is a state of reduced preload and elevated afterload. This causes a reduction in cardiac output (Choice C) which leads to hypotension, tachycardia, and circulatory collapse. High cardiac preload (Choice A), low cardiac afterload (Choice B), and high cardiac output (Choice D) do not occur in cardiac tamponade. Treatment for cardiac tamponade includes IV hydration to increase preload, bedside pericardiocentesis, and ultimately, a surgical cardiac window performed by cardiothoracic surgery. Correct Answer: C
This man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath after a penetrating chest injury. He has tachypnea and low oxygen saturation on exam, but he is not hypotensive or tachycardic. The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey. The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma. This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma). Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition. The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history. After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history.
This patient should immediately be given supplemental oxygen for his low oxygen saturation. The history of penetrating chest trauma and hypoxemia also should raise concern for a traumatic pneumothorax, and oxygen supplementation is part of the treatment for all pneumothoraces. The patient’s chest X-ray shows a large left sided pneumothorax indicated by the absence of left sided lung markings. There is some left to right deviation of the heart and the primary bronchi. There is no large left sided pleural effusion in the costodiaphragmatic recess to indicate a pneumo-hemothorax. There is also no deviation of the trachea, hypotension, or tachycardia to indicate a tension pneumothorax (Choice B). The patient is hemodynamically stable, so he cannot be in hemorrhagic shock (Choice A) or have cardiac tamponade (Choice C). Although the pneumothorax is large with mild deviation of the heart, the lack of hemodynamic instability supports the diagnosis of a traumatic non-tension pneumothorax (Choice D). The treatment for this would include 100% oxygen supplementation and placement of a chest tube. A CT scan of the chest is more sensitive imaging test than a chest X-ray and should be considered to evaluate for additional injuries (blood vessel injuries, rib fractures, etc.). Correct Answer: D
This patient arrives in the Emergency Department after an assault with penetrating abdominal trauma and is hemodynamically stable on exam. The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey. The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma. This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma). Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition. The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history. After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history.
The FAST exam is a quick sonographic exam that requires the practitioner to look at 4 anatomical areas for signs of internal injuries. The 4 areas are the right upper abdominal quadrant, left upper abdominal quadrant, pelvis, and subxiphoid (cardiac) areas. The addition of views for each lung (1 view for each lung) is known as an E-FAST, or extended FAST exam. The presence of an anechoic (black) stripe on ultrasound indicates the presence of free fluid. In the setting of trauma, free fluid is assumed to be blood. The presence of free fluid on a FAST exam is considered a “positive FAST exam”. This patient has no free fluid between the right kidney and liver. There also is no free fluid above the diaphragm to indicate a hemothorax. The question stem notes that all other FAST exam views are nonremarkable. Therefore, this patient has a negative FAST exam. See labelling of the FAST exam image below.
An exploratory laparotomy (Choice A) would be indicated in a patient with penetrating or blunt trauma, a positive FAST exam, and hemodynamic instability. This patient has a negative FAST exam and is hemodynamically stable. Packed red blood cell infusion (Choice B) would be indicated in the setting of hemodynamic instability and trauma, as this is assumed to be hemorrhagic shock. This patient is not tachycardic or hypotensive. A urinalysis to check for hematuria (Choice D) may be a helpful adjunctive investigation to evaluate for renal or bladder injury, but it is not the most crucial next step in management. Performing a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis (Choice C) is the best next step as the patient is hemodynamically stable with a negative FAST exam and a penetrating abdominal injury. The CT scan will help further evaluate for any internal injuries that may require operative repair. See the algorithm below for further detail on an abdominal trauma work flow. Correct Answer: C
This patient presents to the Emergency Department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident in the setting of alcohol intoxication. On examination, he is intoxicated with a GCS of 14 (normal GCS is 15). The first step in evaluating any trauma patient involves the primary survey. The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma. This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma). Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition. The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.
After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history. This patient is intoxicated but is awake with a patent airway. Endotracheal intubation (Choice C) is not indicated. Neurosurgical consultation (Choice D) is also not indicated at this stage as there is no concrete information to indicate a surgical emergency. CT imaging may demonstrate a cervical spine fracture or intracerebral bleeding, but these results are not provided by the question stem. A CT scan of the head without contrast (Choice B) is a reasonable test for this patient given his significant mechanism of injury and intoxication on exam. However, both a CT scan of the head and cervical spine (Choice A) should be ordered due to the patient’s intoxication creating an unreliable physical exam. Alcohol intoxication or drug use can alter a patient’s ability to sense pain and provide accurate information. The presence of intoxication should always raise awareness for possible occult injuries.
Of note, intoxication and altered mental status are indications to perform a CT scan of the cervical spine based on a well-validated decision-making tool known as the NEXUS criteria (National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study). Other criteria on the NEXUS tool that support CT cervical spine imaging are midline spinal tenderness, the presence of a focal neurologic deficit, or the presence of a distracting injury (i.e., femur fracture). The Canadian C-Spine Rule and Canadian CT Head Rule are other validated decision-making tools to help a clinician decide on whether or not to order CT head or cervical spine imaging. Correct Answer: A
This patient presents to the Emergency Department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. On examination, he is tachycardic, mildly tachypneic, and has an altered mental status (somnolent). The first step in evaluating this trauma patient involves the primary survey. The primary survey is also known as the “ABCDEFs” of trauma. This stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure, and FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma). Each letter should be assessed in alphabetical order to avoid missing a time sensitive life-threatening condition. The primary survey should be conducted prior to taking a full history.
After the primary survey, a more detailed physical exam (secondary survey) is conducted, followed by interventions and a focused patient history. A noncontrast CT scan of the head is a reasonable test for this patient given his significant mechanism of injury and altered mental status on exam. The CT scan shows a hyperdense (white) biconvex area on the right side of the brain. This white area indicates the presence of fresh blood on the CT scan. Keep in mind that CT scans are read as if you are looking up from the patient’s feet to their head. This means left-right directionality is reversed. See image below.
A hyperdense area with a sickled or crescent-shaped appearance would indicate an acute subdural hemorrhage (Choice A). This is caused by tearing of the cerebral bridging veins. Hyperdense areas throughout the brain tissue itself would indicate an intraparenchymal hemorrhage (Choice B). Hyperdense areas around the sulci of the brain and a starfish appearance would indicate a subarachnoid hemorrhage (Choice D). Subarachnoid bleeding is caused by rupturing of a brain aneurysm or an arteriovenous (AV) malformation. Subarachnoid bleeding can also be associated with trauma.
This patient’s CT image shows an epidural hemorrhage (Choice C), indicated by the biconvex lens shaped area of blood. This is caused by tearing of the middle meningeal artery. Treatment of all types of intracranial bleeding involves general supportive care, airway management (i.e., endotracheal intubation for GCS < 8), elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees to lower intracranial pressure (ICP), managing pain and sedation (lowers ICP), blood pressure maintenance (goal SBP <140mmHg), reversal of coagulopathy, neurosurgical evaluation for possible operative intervention, and providing ICP lowering treatments (mannitol or hypertonic 3% NaCl) when concerned about elevated ICP or brain herniation.
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain of two hours duration. She awoke several hours after eating a large meal. Based on increasing pain and nausea she presents for evaluation. She denies vomiting, fever or dysuria. Her past history is notable for diet-controlled type II diabetes, dyslipidemia, and essential hypertension. Her BMI is 33. Her only medication is lisinopril 10 mg daily. She has never had surgery. Her social history is unremarkable. She neither drinks alcohol nor uses tobacco. She has begun to diet and reports recent weight loss.
Her temperature is 37ºC, blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg, pulse: 90 beats per minute. Physical exam reveals an overweight female in mild distress secondary to right upper quadrant pain. She cannot find a position of comfort and describes the pain as similar to labor pains. Pertinent exam findings include: chest exam normal, cardiac exam normal, abdominal exam demonstrates normal bowel sounds and no rebound in any quadrant. She has guarding to inspiration with palpation over the gallbladder (positive Murphy’s sign). Rectal exam normal, stool is hemoccult negative for blood. Pertinent lab values: glucose 110 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 120 U/L, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 25 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 25 U/L, gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) 20 U/L, direct bilirubin 0.1 mg/dL, total bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL, lipase 20 U/L.
The emergency physician performs a focused right upper quadrant ultrasound and finds gallstones without associated gallbladder wall thickening or pericholecystic fluid. In addition, the patient has a “sonographic Murphy sign”: there is maximal abdominal tenderness when the ultrasound probe is pressed over the visualized gallbladder.
Cite this article as: iEM Education Project Team, "iEM Image Feed: Gallbladder Stone," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, April 21, 2021, https://iem-student.org/2021/04/21/iem-image-feed/, date accessed: June 6, 2023
In this post, we will share the traumatic (Epidural, subdural, cerebral contusion, subarachnoid hemorrhage, cerebral edema) and atraumatic (intracranial parenchymal hemorrhage, subarachnoid hemorrhage) brain computerized tomography (CT) findings. We will also provide GIF images and one final image, which includes all pathologies in one image.
Corona Virus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) is the disease caused by infection with severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2).
2) What is SARS-CoV-2?
SARS-CoV-2 is a virus belonging to the Coronaviridae family. Spike proteins (S proteins) on the outer surface of SARS-CoV-2 are arranged in a way that resembles the appearance of a crown when viewed under an electron microscope (see Figure 1). S proteins facilitate viral entry into host cells by binding to the angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) host receptor. Several cell types express the ACE2 receptor, including lung alveoli cells. [1].
Figure 1 - Morphology of the SARS-CoV-2 viewed under an electron microscope.Note the spikes that adorn the outer surface of the virus, which impart the look of a corona surrounding the virion. (https://phil.cdc.gov/Details.aspx?pid=23312)
3) How is SARS-CoV-2 transmitted?
Viral particles can spread from person-to-person through airborne transmission (e.g., large droplets) or direct contact(e.g., touching, shaking hands). We have to remember that large droplets are particles with a diameter > 5 microns and that they can be spread by coughing, sneezing, talking, etc., so do not forget to wear full PPE in the Emergency Department (ED). Other potential routes of transmission are still being investigated.
4) What is the incubation time?
In humans, the incubation period of the SARS-CoV-2 varies from 4 days to 14 days, with a median of about 4 days [2].
5) Can we say the COVID-19 is like the seasonal flu?
No, we can’t say that. COVID-19 differs from the flu in several ways:
First of all, SARS-CoV-2 replicates in the lower respiratory tract at the level of the pulmonary alveoli (terminal alveoli). In contrast, Influenza viruses, the causative agents of the flu, replicate in the mucosa of the upper respiratory tract.
Secondly, SARS-CoV-2 is a new virus that has never met our adaptive immune system.
Thirdly, we do not currently have an approved vaccine to prevent infection by SARS-CoV-2.
Lastly, we do not currently have drugs of proven efficacy for the treatment of disease caused by SARS-CoV-2.
6) Who is at risk of contracting the COVID-19?
We are all susceptible to contracting the COVID-19, so it is essential that everyone respects the biohazard prevention rules developed by national and international health committees. Elderly persons, patients with comorbidities (e.g., diabetics, cancer, COPD, and CVD), and smokers appear to exhibit poor clinical outcome and greater mortality from COVID-19 [3]
7) What are the symptoms of the COVID-19?
There are four primary symptoms of COVID-19: fever; dry cough; fatigue; and shortness of breath (SOB).
Other symptoms are loss of appetite, muscle and joint pain, sore throat, nasal congestion and runny nose, headache, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, anosmia, and dysgeusia.
8) What is the severity of symptoms from COVID-19?
In most cases, COVID-19 mild or moderate symptoms, so much so it can resolve after two weeks of rest at home. However, onset of severe viral pneumonia requires hospital admission.
9) Which COVID-19 patients we should admit to the hospital?
The onset of severe viral pneumonia requires hospital admission. COVID-19-associated pneumonia can quickly evolve into respiratory failure, resulting in decreased gas exchange and the onset of hypoxia (we can already detect this deterioration in gas exchange with a pulse oximeter at the patient’s home). This clinical picture can rapidly further evolve into ARDS and severe multi-organ failure.
The use of the PSI/PORT score (or even the MuLBSTA score, although this score needs to be validated) can help us in the hospital admission decision-making process.
10) Do patients with COVID-19 exhibit laboratory abnormalities?
Most patients exhibit lymphocytopenia [11], an increase in prothrombin time, procalcitonin (> 0.5 ng/mL), and/or LDH (> 250 U/L).
11) Are there specific tests that allow us to diagnose COVID-19?
RT-PCR is a specific test that currently appears to have high specificity but not very high sensitivity [12]. We can obtain material for this test from nasopharyngeal swabs, tracheal aspirates of intubated patients, sputum, and bronchoalveolar lavages (BAL). However, the latter two procedures increase the risk of contagion.
However, since rapid tests are not yet available, RT-PCR results may take days to obtain, since laboratory activity can quickly saturate during epidemics. Furthermore, poor pharyngeal swabbing technique or sampling that occurs during the early stage of COVID-19 can lead to further decreased testing sensitivity.
Consequently, for the best patient care, we must rely on clinical symptoms, labs, and diagnostic imaging (US, CXR, CT). The use of a diagnostic flowchart can be useful (see Figure 2).
Figure 2 - A possible diagnostic flow chart for an ill patient admitted to hospital with suspected COVID-19 (from EMCrit Blog)
12) Can lung ultrasound help diagnose COVID-19?
Yes, it can help! The use of POCUS lung ultrasound is a useful method both in diagnosis and in real-time monitoring of the COVID-19 patient.
In addition, we could monitor the patient not only in the emergency department (ED) or intensive care unit (ICU), but also in a pre-hospital setting, such as in the home of a patient who is in quarantine.
In fact, POCUS lung ultrasounds not only allows one to anticipate further complications such as lung consolidation from bacterial superinfection or pneumothorax, but it also allows detection of viral pneumonia at the early stages. Furthermore, the use of a high-frequency ultrasound probe, which is an adoption of the 12-lung areas method [4] and the portable ultrasound (they are easily decontaminated), allow this method to be repeatable, inexpensive, easy to transport, and radiation-free.
There are no known pathognomonic patterns of COVID-19.
The early stages COVID-19 pneumonia results in peripheral alveolar damage including alveolar edema and a proteinaceous exudate [5]. This interstitial syndrome can be observed via ultrasound by the presence of scattered B lines in a single intercostal space (see videos below).
Subsequently, COVID-19 pneumonia progression leads to what’s called “white lung”, which ultrasound represents as converging B lines that cover the entire area of the intercostal space; they start from the pleura to end at the bottom of the screen.
Finally, the later stages of this viral pneumonia lead to “dry lung”, which consists of a pattern of small consolidations (< 1 cm) and subpleural nodules. Unlike bacterial foci of infection, these consolidations do not create a Doppler signal within the lesions. We should consider the development from “white lung” to “dry lung” as an unfavorable evolution of the disease.[6]
13) Can CXR/CT help us in the diagnosis of COVID-19?
Yes, it can help! There are essentially three patterns we observed in COVID-19.
In the early stages, the main pattern is ground-glass opacity (GGO)[7]. Ground glass opacity is represented at the lung bases with a peripheral distribution (see videos below) .
The second pattern is constituted by consolidations, which unlike ground-glass opacity, determine a complete “opacification” of the lung parenchyma. The greater the extent of consolidations, the greater the severity and the possibility of admission in ICU.
The third pattern is called crazy paving[8]. It is caused by the thickening of the pulmonary lobular interstitium.
However, we should consider four things when we do a CXR/CT exam. First, many patients, especially in the elderly, exhibit multiple, simultaneously occurring pathologies, so it is possible to clinically observe nodular effusions, lymph node enlargements, and pleural effusions that are not typical of COVID-19 pneumonia. Secondly, we have to be aware that other types of viral pneumonia can also cause GGO, so they cannot be excluded during the diagnostic process. Thirdly, imaging can help evaluate the extent of the disease and alternative diagnoses, but we cannot use it exclusively for diagnosis. Lastly, we should carefully assess the risk of contagion from transporting these patients to the CT room.
Quality CT/XR images on proven COVID-19 provided by Prof. Dr. Filippo Cademartiri, Chairman of Radiology , Marche – Italy. pic.twitter.com/MchsLQMf8z
14) What is the treatment for this type of patient?
COVID-19 patients quickly become hypoxic without many symptoms (apparently due to “silent” atelectasis). Therapy for these clinical manifestations is resuscitation and support therapy. In patients with mild respiratory insufficiency, oxygen therapy is adopted. In severe patients in which respiratory mechanics are compromised, non-invasive ventilation (NIV) or invasive ventilation should be adopted.
15) How can we non-invasively manage the airways of patients with COVID-19?
In the presence of a virus epidemic, we should remember that all the procedures that generate aerosolization (e.g., NIV, HFNC, BMV, intubation, nebulizers) are high-risk procedures.
Among the non-invasive oxygenation methods, the best-recommended solution is to have patients wear both a high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) and a surgical mask[9]. Still, we should also consider using CPAP with a helmet interface. Furthermore, we should avoid the administration of medications through nebulization or utilize metered-dose inhalers with spacer (Figure 3).
Figure 3 – General schema for Respiratory Support in Patients with COVID-19 (from PulmCrit Blog)
16) How can we invasively manage the airways of patients with COVID-19?
We should intubate as soon as possible, even in non-critical conditions (Figure 3). Intubation is a high contagion risk procedure. As a result, we should adopt the highest levels of precaution[10]. To be more precise:
As healthcare operator, we should wear full PPE. Only the most skilled person at intubation in the staff should intubate. Furthermore we should consider using a video laryngoscope. Last but not least, we should ensure the correct positioning of the endotracheal tube without a stethoscope (link HERE).
The room where intubation occurs should be a negative pressure room. When that is not feasible, the room should have doors closed during the intubation procedure.
The suctiondevice should have a closed-circuit so as not to generate aerosolization outside.
Preoxygenation should be done using means that do not generate aerosols. Let us remember that HFNC and BVM both can generate aerosolization. So, it is important to remember to turn off the flow of the HFNC before removing it from the patient face to minimize the risk and to use a two-handed grip when using BVM, interposing an antiviral filter between the BVM and resuscitation bag and ventilating gently.
Intubation drugs that do not cause coughing should be used. In addition, we should evaluate the use of Rocuronium in the Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI) since it has a longer half-life compared to succinylcholine and thus prevents the onset of coughing or vomiting.
In conclusion, let us remember that intubation, extubation, bronchoscopy, NIV, CPR prior to intubation, manual ventilation etc. produce aerosolization of the virus, therefore, it is necessary that we wear full PPE.
17) What is the drug therapy for COVID-19?
Currently, there is no validated drug therapy for COVID-19. Some drugs are currently under study. They include Remdesivir (blocks RNA-dependent RNA polymerase), Chloroquine and Hydroxychloroquine (both block the entry of the virus into the endosome), Tocilizumab and Siltuximab (both block IL-6).
18) Is there a vaccine available for COVID-19?
No, there is still no vaccine currently available to the public.
19) What precautions should we take with COVID-19 infected patients?
As healthcare professionals, we should wear full personal protective equipment (PPE) and know how to wear them (“DONning”) and how to remove them properly (“DOFFing”) (see video below). Furthermore, we should wear full PPE for the entire shift and when in contact with patients with respiratory problems.
Cite this article as: Francesco Adami, Italy, "19 Questions and Answers on the COVID-19 Pandemic from a Emergency Medicine-based Perspective," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, March 27, 2020, https://iem-student.org/2020/03/27/19-questions-and-answers-on-the-covid-19/, date accessed: June 6, 2023
Authors: Kilalo Maeli Mjema, Emergency Physician and Mugisha Clement, Neurosurgeon.
Case Presentation
A 34 years old male sustained a traumatic brain injury following a motor vehicle accident 3 hours before presentation to ED. BP: 117/69mmHg. HR: 84, RR: 18, SPO2: 99% in room air, T: 36.9.
Primary Survey
Airway: patent and protected Breathing: bilateral equal air entry Circulation: warm extremities, 1 second capillary refill time Disability: alert and oriented, pupils 4mm bilaterally equally reactive to light, RBG 5.6 mmol/L Exposure: raccoon right eye, bruises on the forehead and upper limbs
SAMPLE History
Signs and symptoms: mostly chest pain than the headache, nausea Allergies: no known allergies Medication: had received tramadol, dexamethasone, tetanus toxoid and some intravenous fluids before being referred to our facility Past medical history: no known comorbid or any significant history Event: sustained motor vehicle accident as a motorcycle driver with no helmet on 3 hours prior presentation, associated with a 20 minutes loss of consciousness. Attended at another facility where he regained his full consciousness, wounds dressed, medication given as above, E-FAST negative and CT imaging done. He remained conscious throughout and was transferred for neurosurgical observation and interventions.
Neuro-observation and continuous monitoring were planned. Blood samples sent for CBC, PT, aPTT, blood type and crossmatch. The neurosurgical review was done, and the patient was to be kept inpatient for close neurosurgical observation and interventions as needed.
Patient progress while still in the ED
In the course of stay in the ED, the patient started to vomit, became drowsier overtime, was moving mostly the right side of his limbs. The right pupil was 6-7mm non-reactive to light and GCS dropped to E1M4(Rt)V2
Vitals
BP 133/79 mmHg HR 39-45 bpm RR 14 rpm SPO2 99% in room air.
The patient was emergently transferred for repeat imaging and prepared for emergency craniotomy and hematoma evacuation. Theatre was informed and ready to receive the patient.
Rapid sequence induction and intubation
Patient pre-oxygenated
Induction with iv ketamine 2mg/kg (weight 75kg)
Paralyzed with iv suxamethonium 100mg
Intubated by sized 8 cuffed ETT
Mannitol 20g iv infusion was given over 10 minutes.
Intraoperative Findings and Progress
Right frontotemporoparietal craniotomy was done. Approximately 100 mls of hematoma because of spurting bleeding from the medial meningeal artery was found. No other obvious identifiable bleeding was seen. Hemostasis was achieved and closed in layers with a drain. The patient had a complete neuro improvement, extubated at day 5 and discharged 9th day.
Clinical Pearls
The incidence of epidural hematoma is highest among adolescents and young adults
Most cases are a result of head trauma by traffic accidents, falls or assaults
Most commonly due to middle meningeal arterial bleed
Epidural hematoma does not cross suture margins but crosses dural attachments as a convex lens shaped appearance
Glucocorticoids have no role in reducing cerebral edema in traumatic brain injury
In the presence of epidural hematoma with the feature of herniation, mannitol can be given with caution that craniotomy and evacuation is going to be done immediately
Ketamine in RSII can still be considered in traumatic brain injury where blood pressures are not raised
Clinical Pearls
In the context of non-operative management, properly monitoring neurologic status and progress is the key factor to recognise early need of emergency medical intervention, re-imaging and neurosurgery.
A 35-year-old male presented to fast track complaining of bilateral severe shoulder pain for one-day duration. He reports waking up like that, and not being able to move his shoulders much due to the pain.
He denied any recent falls, injuries, or direct trauma to his shoulders. He also denied any fever, rashes, skin changes, headaches, numbness or weakness. No further findings found upon review of systems. Past medical history revealed a history of epilepsy. Otherwise, he’s not on any medications and denies any known allergies.
Physical examination showed slim male, with flattened anterior shoulders and normal inspection of the skin overlying his shoulders. He had internally rotated upper extremities, flexed elbows, and arms held in adduction. Upon attempts on any passive or active test of the range of motion, he experienced reluctance and pain on external rotation or abduction of his shoulders. Bilateral Shoulder X-rays were obtained.
Light Bulb Sign: Fixed internal rotation of the humeral head, makes the greater tuberosity anterior, giving a symmetrical appearance of the humeral head, that looks like a light bulb.
Empty Glenoid Sign: Humeral Head and Glenoid fossa widened articular space
Trough Sign: Vertical Line on AP, can indicate compression fracture of the humeral head medially.
In suspected Posterior Shoulder Dislocations, you should always get multiple views, including Anterior-Posterior (AP), scapular (Y), and Axillary Views.
You need to evaluate each case separately. The cases like this patient, with associated fractures, can complicate your management, and hence consulting orthopedic services would be advised, as surgical interventions should be evaluated.
If closed reduction fails, usually open reduction is pondered by subspecialty, especially in cases with extensive damage to the humeral head.
In cases with no associated fractures, the approach is the reduction of the dislocation. Most of them would require procedural sedation and analgesia.
Consider discussing options of procedural sedation and analgesia, with or without intraarticular blocks with your attending, for better and successful procedures, and minimal pain for your patient. The most convenient procedure options should also be discussed with patients, and consent should be taken.
Patients would require pre and post-reduction neurovascular examination and X-rays.
Make sure your patient is examined again after the procedure, assessing the stability of the joint for regained full range of motion.
Shoulder immobilization and follow up care plans with orthopedics services should be arranged.
Don’t forget, patients with known epilepsy, non-adherence or uncontrolled seizures have to be evaluated as well, and referred to appropriate neurology evaluation.
Case Reflections
Bilateral shoulder dislocations are rare and of these, bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations are more prevalent than bilateral anterior shoulder dislocations.
Bilateral fracture-dislocation is even rarer, with a few cases reported in the literature.
In the rare case of an asymmetrical bilateral dislocation, attention may be distracted to the more evident lesion, which is the anterior dislocation. This may lead to delayed diagnosis, especially in an unconscious patient in a post-ictal state.
In the present case, open reduction and internal fixation was performed.
References and Further Reading
Roberts & Hedges Clinical Procedures in Emergency Medicine (6th ed) 2014. Philadelphia. Elsevier Saunders Inc. – Chapter 49
Tintinalli’s Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide (7th ed) 2011. New York. McGraw Hill Companies Inc. – Chapter 268
Rosen’s Emergency Medicine: Concepts and Clinical Practice (8th ed) 2014. Philadelphia. Elsevier Saunders Inc. – Chapter 53
Sharma A, Jindal S, Narula MS, Garg S, Sethi A. Bilateral Asymmetrical Fracture Dislocation of Shoulder with Rare Combination of Injuries after Epileptic Seizure: A Case Report. Malays Orthop J. 2017;11(1):74–76. doi:10.5704/MOJ.1703.011 – https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5393121/
Acknowledgement
Credit and acknowledgment for Dr. Eelaf Elhassan for sharing the case.
Cite this article as: Shaza Karrar, UAE, "I woke up like that! – Bilateral Shoulder Pain," in International Emergency Medicine Education Project, December 13, 2019, https://iem-student.org/2019/12/13/bilateral-shoulder-pain/, date accessed: June 6, 2023